Contradiction in the logic of Quranic verses in the phenomenon of the birth of Jesus Christ - 1

 Jesus Christ

The miracle of the birth of Jesus Christ

When the Qur'an wants to deny the possibility of having children from the realm of God's existence, it says in verse 101 of Surah An'am: " How could He have a child when He has had no spouse?". Also, in verse 20 of Surah Maryam, " She said: "How shall I have a son, seeing that no man has touched me, and I am not unchaste?!". If the Quran's logic in denying God's childbearing is the existence of a wife, and the negation of Maryam's childbearing is the existence of a husband, then how can the birth of Jesus be accepted?

Short answer:

First: God's speech in verse 20 of Surah An'am was a polemical speech in response to the false belief of the polytheists. It was in accordance with their logic, not that the reason for God's childlessness is only because he does not have a wife! Because choosing a wife is not reasonable for God Almighty. Because choosing a wife is one of the complications of physical and material beings, and He is free from such complications.

Secondly: The words of Maryam (PBUH) are a word that observes the natural ways of the birth of human children and does not contradict the will of God. Maryam (peace be upon her) was only thinking about normal causes at this time. While the system of the natural world is God's creation and subject to His command. Whenever He wants, he can change this system and create beings with abnormal means and factors.

Thirdly: The purpose of the birth of Jesus (pbuh) from a mother without a husband was that God created a human being who is the manifestation of His power. In this way, to complete the proof against the obstinate nation of Bani Israel, who did not go under the burden of calling other prophets after Prophet Moses (pbuh). Since it has a special wisdom, its story cannot be considered as a violation of other verses of the Qur'an on how human children are born.[1]

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